<html><head></head><body>Also, the Canadian province of Quebec has civil law based on French civil law, not English like the rest of Canada. Considering that nearly half of all major Canadian corporations have their headquarters there... I don't have to draw that picture, I think. IIRC, there's no (e.g.) adverse possession concept, among other things. IANAL, can't explain all the differences.<br>
-Adam<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">On June 3, 2015 5:38:08 PM CDT, William Herrin <bill@herrin.us> wrote:<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); padding-left: 1ex;">
<pre class="k9mail">On Wed, Jun 3, 2015 at 6:24 PM, Seth Johnson <seth.p.johnson@gmail.com> wrote:<br /><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin: 0pt 0pt 1ex 0.8ex; border-left: 1px solid #729fcf; padding-left: 1ex;"> If it's copyright, the judge won't do that. There's no such thing as<br /> an "exclusive right to use" in copyright.<br /></blockquote><br />Hi Seth,<br /><br />IP addresses are definitely not copyrights. Or trademarks, patents or<br />trade secrets. So far as I know, they're not any kind of<br />*intellectual* property whose existence derives from statute and, in<br />the U.S., from the Constitution itself.<br /><br />I suspect they're Common Law *Intangible* Property which is something<br />else entirely. At least they are in common law jurisdictions which<br />includes all of the U.S. and Canada and if I'm not mistaken everywhere<br />else in the ARIN region as well.<br /><br />Much of Europe operates on Roman Civil Law rather than English Common<
br
/>Law. The legal foundations over there are so different I couldn't<br />begin to speculate how IP addresses fit.<br /><br />Regards,<br />Bill Herrin<br /><br /></pre></blockquote></div><br>
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