past vs future use

On Sat, 28 Jun 1997, Jeff Williams wrote:

>   I have to agree with Jon's assesment here.  It would seeme exactly
> so that if an ISP is multihomed and completley using at least a

Unfortunately, if you read a little more carefully (I missed it when
skimming the rfc before, but Mr. Cook pointed it out) section 3 doesn't
seem to apply to ISPs at all.  We get shafted in section 2.  Section 3 is
for large organizations not giving IP's out to others...not a fitting
description of most ISPs.

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